Raj. CHO -2024
Obstetrics & Gynaecology
Easy

Which of the following is not a high risk pregnancy?

Appeared in: Raj. CHO -2024

Explanation

  • A previous uncomplicated vaginal delivery is a positive prognostic indicator for a future pregnancy.
  • According to obstetric guidelines, a second or third pregnancy following a normal first delivery is considered low risk.
  • This history suggests the mother's pelvis is adequate for childbirth and she has previously navigated pregnancy and delivery without major complications, reducing the likelihood of issues in a subsequent pregnancy.

Why Other Options Were Wrong

  • Option B: A primigravid (first-time pregnant) woman aged 30 or older is classified as an 'elderly primigravida' and is considered high-risk.
  • Option C: Anemia during pregnancy is a significant medical disorder that classifies the pregnancy as high-risk.
  • Option D: A twin pregnancy, or any multiple gestation, is automatically categorized as high-risk.

Related Visual

Visual explanation — Related Visual
  • Visual 1: Infographic: Chart categorizing common antenatal factors into 'High Risk' and 'Low Risk' columns. High-risk examples would include advanced maternal age, multiple gestation, and anemia. Low-risk examples would include a history of normal delivery.
Clinical Relevance
  • Nursing practice connection: This is primarily an exam-oriented knowledge point with limited direct bedside application, so retain Identification of high-risk versus low-risk pregnancy factors as background academic context rather than a clinical decision trigger.
  • Accurate risk assessment during the first antenatal visit is crucial for planning the frequency of subsequent visits, the level of care required (e.g., specialist vs. midwife-led), and necessary interventions to ensure a healthy outcome for both mother and baby.
  • Identifying high-risk pregnancies allows for timely referral to specialized centers equipped to handle potential complications.
  • What if? If the 'previous vaginal delivery' was complicated by a third-degree perineal tear, shoulder dystocia, or postpartum hemorrhage, the pregnancy would be re-classified as high-risk due to the history of significant obstetric complications, warranting closer monitoring.
How to Approach the Question
  • First, recognize that the question asks to identify the option that is NOT a high-risk pregnancy. This is a negative-framed or 'exception' question.
  • Evaluate each option individually to determine if it is a known risk factor in pregnancy.
  • Recall or deduce that advanced maternal age for a first-time mother (primigravida over 30), anemia (a medical complication), and twin pregnancy (multiple gestation) are all well-established high-risk conditions.
  • Consider the remaining option: 'Previous vaginal delivery'. A history of a normal, successful delivery is generally a positive sign, suggesting the mother's body is capable of carrying and delivering a baby without major issues.
  • Conclude that the factor which is not a risk, and is in fact a favorable sign, is the correct answer.
Concept Tested & Keywords
  • Concept Tested: Identification of high-risk versus low-risk pregnancy factors.
  • Stem keywords: high risk pregnancy
  • Lead-in keywords: not
  • Negative lead-in flag: This is a negative-framed question asking you to identify the option that is NOT a risk factor.

Question ID

QVqQOyZWxMK_eSqb57N8bc

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